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Update your Knowledge with MKSAP 17 Q&A

MKSAP has been trusted by internists since 1967 as the best resource for updating knowledge. MKSAP 17, available in Complete, Digital, and Print packages, consists of 11 comprehensive text chapters with related multiple-choice questions. You'll find 1,200 completely new questions to help you identify learning gaps, stay current, and gain the knowledge you need to provide the best possible patient care. MKSAP 17's original and high-quality questions evolve out of case studies and patient scenarios based on the latest evidence.

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MKSAP 17 Q & A

A 55-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-week history of visual symptoms in the left eye. He reports seeing black spots that move across his eye and flashes of light, followed by a progressive loss of vision over the lateral field, as if half of his vision is covered by a shadow. He reports no headaches or trauma. He does not wear contact lenses; however, he does wear glasses for the correction of myopia. He is a nonsmoker. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and he takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 28. Visual acuity is intact. The pupils appear normal and are equally reactive to light. On dilated ophthalmoscopy, the left fundus is undulating and out of focus. There is no retinal pallor, and there are no cotton wool spots or hemorrhages. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A: Age-related macular degeneration
B: Branch retinal vein occlusion
C: Central retinal artery occlusion
D: Retinal detachment

Answer and Critique

Back to the May 2018 issue of ACP International